Get college assignment help at uniessay writers have a non-living, jelly-like mesoglea conmective layer between their two main membrane layers. Lophotrochozoans Ecdysozoans Cnidarians Next Previous Search the web and Windows
18. Cytokinesis in animal cells A) requires ATP B) leaves a small circular ‘scar’ of actin filaments on the inner surface of the plasma membrane C) is often followed by phosphorylation of integrins in the plasma membrane D) is assisted by motor proteins that pull on microtubules attached to the cell cortex 19. Which of the following statements is false? A) Cytokinesis in plant cells is mediated by the microtubule cytoskeleton B) Small membrane vesicles derived from the Golgi apparatus deliver new cell wall material for the new wall of the dividing cell. C) The phragmoplast forms from the remains of interpolar microtubules of the mitotic spindle. D) Motor proteins walking along the cytoskeleton are important for the contractile ring that guides formation of the new cell wall. 20. Which organelle fragments during mitosis? A) endoplasmic reticulum D) chloroplast B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondrion 21. Programmed cell death occurs A) by means of an intracellular suicide program C) only in unhealthy or abnormal cells development B) only during embryonic development D) rarely and selectively only during animal 22. Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that necrosis A) requires the reception of an extracellular signal B) causes DNA to fragment C) causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense D) involves a caspase cascade 23. Which of the following statements about apoptosis is true? A) Cells that constitutively express Bcl2 will be more prone to undergo apoptosis. B) The prodomain of procaspases contains the catalytic activity necessary for procaspase activation. C) Bax and Bak promote apoptosis by binding to procaspases in the apoptosome. D) Apoptosis is promoted by the release of cytochrome c into the cytosol from mitochondria. 24. Fibroblasts organize the collagen of the extracellular matrix by A) cutting and rejoining the fibrils C) twisting fibrils together to make ropelike fibers cables after it has been secreted B) processing procollagen into collagen D) pulling the collagen into sheets or 25. Which of the following statements about integrins is false? A) Integrins use adaptor proteins to interact with the microtubule cytoskeleton. B) Integrins can switch to an activated state by binding to an extracellular matrix molecule. C) Integrins can switch to an activated state by binding to an intracellular protein. D) An activated integrin molecule takes on an extended conformation. 26. A basal lamina A) is a thin layer of connective tissue cells and matrix underlying an epithelium B) is a thin layer of extracellular matrix underlying an epithelium C) is attached to the apical surface of an epithelium D) separates epithelial cells from each other 3
27.Tight junctions A) allow small water-soluble molecules to pass from cell to cell B) are found in cells C) interact with the intermediate filaments inside the cell D) are formed from claudins and occludins connective tissues 28. Adherens junctions B) are found only in adult tissues D) involve fibronectin and integrin interactions A) can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes C) are most often found at the basal surface of cells 29. At desmosomes, cadherin molecules are connected to D) gap junctions C) microtubules B) intermediate filaments A) actin filaments 30. Hemidesmosomes are important for A) tubulation of epithelial sheets C) forming the basal lamina B) linkages to glycosaminoglycans D) attaching epithelial cells to the extracellular matrix 31. Which type of junction involves a connection to the actin cytoskeleton? B) desmosomes A) adherens junctions D) gap junctions C) tight junctions 32. Which type of junction contributes the most to the polarization of epithelial cells? A) adherens junctions B) desmosomes D) gap junctions C) tight junctions 33. Cadherins A) are used to transfer proteins from one cell to another B) mediate cell-cell attachments through homophilic interactions C) are abundant in the plant cell wall D) bind to collagen fibrils 34. An adult hemopoietic stem cell found in the bone marrow A) will occasionally produce epidermal cells when necessary B) can produce only red blood cells C) can undergo self-renewing divisions for the lifetime of a healthy animal D) will express all the same transcription factors as those found in an unfertilized egg 35. Mouse embryonic stem (ES) cells A) can only be produced through therapeutic cloning B) can give rise to all tissues and cell types in the body except germ cells C) can be implanted in foster mothers to produce cloned cows and other animals D) come from the inner cell mass of early embryos 36. How do reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning differ? A) The DNA in the nucleus of cells produced for therapeutic cloning is genetically identical to the donor genome, whereas in cells produced for reproductive cloning it is not. B) Reproductive cloning requires a supply of fertilized donor egg cells, whereas therapeutic cloning requires unfertilized egg cells. C) Therapeutic cloning requires nuclear transplantation, whereas reproductive cloning does not. D) Embryos are placed into foster mothers during reproductive cloning but not during therapeutic cloning 4
37. Induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells A) are created by the expression of a set of key genes in cells derived from adult tissues so that these cells can differentiate into a variety of cell types B) require a supply of donor egg cells, such as embryonic stem cells C) can differentiate into a greater variety of adult tissues than embryonic stem cells D) are created by nuclear transplantation 38. A malignant tumor is more dangerous than a benign tumor because A) its cells are proliferating faster B) t causes neighboring cells to mutate C) its cells atack and phagocytose neighboring normal tissue cells D) its cells invade other tissues 39. Which of the following statements about cancer is false? A) Viruses cause some cancers. B) Tobacco use is responsible for more than 20% of all cancer deaths. C) A mutation in even a single cancer-critical gene is sufficient to convert a normal cell into D) Chemical carcinogens cause cancer by changing the nucleotide sequence of DNA. cancer cell, 40. Which of the following genetic changes cannot convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene? A) A mutation that introduces a stop codon immediately after the codon for the initiator methionine. B) A mutation within the coding sequence that makes the protein hyperactive. C) An amplification of the number of copies of the proto-oncogene, causing overproduction of the normal protein. D) A mutation in the promoter of the proto-oncogene, causing the normal protein to be transcribed and translated at an abnormally high level. 41. Which of the following statements about tumor suppressor genes is false? tumor suppressor gene is less dangerous than gene amplification of a proto- A) Gene amplification of oncogene. B) Cells with one functional copy of a tumor suppressor gene will usually proliferate faster than normal cells C) Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes leads to enhanced cell survival and proliferation. D) Individuals with only one functional copy of a tumor suppressor gene are more prone to cancer than individuals with two functional copies of a tumor suppressor gene. Match the target of the G protein with the appropriate signaling outcome for the following 3 questions. A) cleavage of inositol phospholipids B) increase in CAMP levels C) changes in membrane potential 42. adenylyl cyclase 43. ion channels 44. phospholipase C 5
Use the figure below to answer the following four questions. Please read carefully!! 1 A 7 AC 5 E 6 AB 2 B 4 D 3 C (1 45. desmosome 46. adherens junction 47. gap junction 48. tight junction 49. Which of the following statements is false? A) Mitotic Cdk must be phosphorylated by an activating kinase (Cak) before it is active. B) Phosphorylation of mitotic Cdk by the inhibitory kinase (Weel) makes the Cdk inactive, even if it is phosphorylated by the activating kinase. C) Active M-Cdk phosphorylates the activating phosphatase (Cdc25) in a positive feedback loop. D) The activating phosphatase (Cdc25) removes all phosphates from mitotic Cdk so that M-Cdk will be active. 50. The growth factor RGF stimulates proliferation of cultured rat cells. The receptor that binds RGF is a receptor tyrosine kinase called RGFR. Which of the following types of alteration to RGF would be most likely to prevent receptor dimerization? A) a mutation that increases the affinity of RGFR for RGF B) a mutation that prevents RGFR from binding to RGF C) changing the tyrosines that are normally phosphorylated on RGFR dimerization to alanines D) changing the tyrosines that are normally phosphorylated on RGFR dimerization to glutamic acid
To answer this question, you may reference the Metabolic Map Suppose 5 glucose molecules are formed during gluconeogenesis. Calculate the amount of pyruvate, ATP, and NADH molecules required pyruvate molecules = ATP molecules = NADH molecules =
BF False 3- The bases in DNA which base pairs with Guanine a- thymine, 4- Which base pairs with adenine in DNA molecule thymine, 5- If a father is color blind, but the mother is carrier, the chances that their daughter be color blind is a- 25%, 6- The possible genotype for a normal person with a defective autosomal dominant genes would be a-AA, b) cytosine, c. adenine, d, uracil a- b. cytosine, c. Guanine, d, uracil b-) 50% c-75%, d- 15% d- aa b- Aa, с-ХаХа, 7-Genes found on chromosome 1 is called X-linked B=False…. A=True…. 8-Only genes that relate to the sex of the individual will be found on the sex chromosomes. A= True 9-Y-linked disorders present only in males, Fathers pass the trait to all sons B False B=False Tthromosome is the same as on Y c-75%, S0%0 d- 15% 6-The possible genotype for a normal person with a defective autosomal dominant genes would be a-AA, 7- Genes found on chromosome 1 is called X-linked b- Aa, с-ХаХа, d- aa B=False….. A=True….
Q 4-Explain why there is so much variability among people? What happens during meiosis cell division that results in differences between the new daughter cells or gametes that cause variability among individuals? Name three factors that results in variability among individuals Q 5- What is the function of retina? Q 6- What is the function of ciliary body in the eye ? Q 7- What is the function of cerebellum?
1 QUESTION 1 logically assume which of the following The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can statements to be true? Proteins were the first genetic material (before DNA) There is only one possible code that could work for translation A gene from an organism could be expressed by any other organism The same codons in different organisms translate into different amino acids. All of the above are true
Which one of the following structures, if missing, would prevent translation from starting? Exon 5 cap Stop codon AUG codon poly-A tail
Get college assignment help at uniessay writers Which of the following DNA mutations is most likely to damage the protein it specifies? A base-pair deletion near the beginning of a coding region An addition of three nucleotides near the end of a coding region A substitution in the last base of a codon A codon deletion near the end of a coding region A silent mutation
What effect does a missense mutation have on a gene? It changes an amino acid into a stop codon. It alters the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein. It alters the reading frame of the MRNA It changes the structure of the 5′ UTR of the MRNA None of the above is correct
In bacteria, there are 61 MRNA codons that specify an explains this fact? amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs.Which of the following statements Some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize multiple amino acids. Many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. The DNA codes for all 61 1RNAS, but some are then destroyed Base pairing between the first base of a codon and tRNA is flexible. None of the above is correct
Discussion Questions 1. Why must individuals be inoculated against influenza every year? 2. How would you develop an immune globulin for passive protection of someone exposed to rabies? 3. What are the impediments to creating a vaccine for the common cold? 4. How are the Sabin and Salk polio vaccines different? Why does the U.S.-recommended immunization schedule no longer include the Sabin vaccine?
5. Develop a timeline showing changes in the U.S. immunization schedule over the last 30 years. 6. How does the U.S. immunization schedule differ from the schedules of other developed nations? 7. Despite evidence that immunizations are a cost- effective means of preventing specific infectious diseases, many people do not receive the recommended immunizations. Discuss possible reasons for the resistance to vaccination Suggest means for overcoming these obstacles and for increasing the percentage of the immunized population
Discussion Questions 1. Explain the difference between normal variation and genetic mutation 2. How would the environment impact a multifactorial trait like height in someone with normal genetic variation? How would environment impact someone with a mutation that results in dwarfism? 3. A normal genetic variation in the GST-1 gene has been found in 7% of a study population. People who carry two copies of this variant are 5 times more likely to develop lung cancer if they smoke a pack of cigarettes per day than people who have no copies of the variant. How could this information be used to talk about risk to this person?
4. The GST-1 variant can best be described as prevalence and penetrance. 5. The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) now screens all Division I and Il athletes for sickle cell trait. How do you feel about testing for sickle cell anemia at birth vs. testing for the trait as a young adult? 6. Does the NCAA testing policy discriminate against athletes with the sickle cell trait? Does it discriminate based on race or ethnicity?
Homogehous Catalysts G Homogeneous Catalysts ash.edu/pluginfile.php/8941176/mod resource/content/1/CHM1051 Workshop % 20Week 12 % 202019 % 20Annotated.pdf Class discusiion What is the basic postulate of the collision theory? What two factors influence the effectiveness of molecular collisions in producing a chemical change? In terms of kinetic theory and collision theory, why does an increase in temperature increase the rate of reaction? CHM 1051 MONASHUniversity Sciance 18 Reaction Kinotics
This lab work involves using your lab manual and your textbook. Introduction; DNA stands for Deoxy Ribo Nucleic Acid. The DNA carries the codes for all the genetic characteristics in a living organism. Its is the DNA is composed of four different subunits, called nucleotides. Each nucleotide is made of: A phosphate group A five-Carbon sugar, called deoxyribose A nitrogen-containing bases Adenine only pairs with thymine, and Guanine only pairs with eytosine. They are called complementary base pairs. What to do? 1-Study lab experiment 8, beginning on page 81 (top right number) in your lab manual 2-Answer the questions on page 82, 84, 85 and 88 3-Answer the multiple-choice question page181 in your textbook. on 4-Explain the following questions (from lab manual page 90) a-Most of the time the cell is in which of portion of cell cycle. Why is advantageous? b- What is the function of kinetochores during mitosis-explain Explain how cytokinesis in animal cells is different from plant cells C-
Imperial Valley College Biology Lab Exp. 28- Chemical Aspects of Digestion 4-13-2018 Student name Introduction; – Digestion and breakdown of food begins in the mouth.. Salivary glands secrete saliva, that contain Amylase, the enzyme that is used for partial digestion of carbohydrates The stomach partially breaks down proteins by the enzyme Pepsin – Small intestine is the site of final chemical digestion, and absorption of nutrients. – The pancreas produce several digestive enzymes that break down sugars, lipids, and proteins. Lab assignment- Review Experiment 28, page 223 (page 379 in older edition). You will be doing Exp. 28.1 and 28.3. 1- Exp. 28.1-This experiment explains the effect of enzyme Pepsin for digestion of proteins. You will also find out the effect of pH on activity of the enzyme pepsin. Follow the procedures as explained in the lab manual, and complete table 28.1, page 226. 2- Exp. 28.3-In this experiment you will find out the effect of amylase enzyme to digest starch. As you experienced in experiment 3, the indicator agent for presence of starch is iodine. When starch is digested, it will be broken down into simple sugars such as glucose. Now the iodine should not change the color of glucose. It means starch has been completely digested. To test for the presence of glucose, you would use Benedict reagent, as you practiced in experiment 3. Complete Table 28.3 and record your results. Answer the supplemental questions listed below; he following factors influence effective digestion? b. temperature, 1- Which specific enzymes c. time, d. pH, e. all of these a- 2- Which of the following is the specific enzyme for digestion of protein? a- Lipase, d. Pepsin, b. amylase, c. glycogen, 3- Which of the following is the specific enzyme for digestion of starch? – glycogen, -Lipase, b. amylase, d. Pepsin c. 4- Excess energy input will result in a. more fat storage, b. loosing weight, d. both a and c change, c. no 5- Vegetables that contain cellulose, produce less energy than simple carbohydrates False…. True…. 6-Which is an example of Simple carbohydrates, b- fructose c- cellulose, d- both a and b a Glucose 7- Chemical breakdown of proteins begins in the a- stomach by the enzyme pepsin. c- the small intestine by lipase, b- in small intestine by pepsin, d- in large intestine 8- Salivary gland secretes saliva that contain digestive enzyme for b- carbohydrates, c- lipids, d- both a and b a- proteins, 9- Liver produces bile which is used for digestion of carbohydrates True…. False…. 10-pancreas secretes enzymes necessary for digestion of b- carbohydrates, e- all of them d- both a and b. lipids, a- proteins, 11-Your stomach produces the enzyme necessary for digestion of b- carbohydrates, d- both a and b, c- lipids, a-proteins, 12- Meat and egg white that you eat are a- Pepsin, digested by what enzyme c- lipase, b- trypsin, d- both a and b 13- Small intestine produces enzymes for final digestion of a- proteins, b-carbohydrates d- both a and b, e- all of them c- DNA, 14- Pepsin works effectively in an acidic media or in a basic media a-acidic, b- basic, c- in both media, d- In neutral media 15- Starch is present in bread, potatoes and rice. Where do they breakdown in digestive tract b- in the stomach, e- both a and c are correct partially in mouth, d- in large intestine c- in small intestine, a- 16- What enzyme is necessary for digestion of bread, potatoes and corn a-albumin, d- pepsin b-lipase, c- amylase, 17- In your experiment what happed to the enzyme when you boiled it, a-they act more effectively, b- it did not work. d- both b and c c- it was denatured, 18- Enzymes perform better at room temperature than when they are boiled True… False…. 19- Trypsin works effectively in an acidic media or in a basic media a-acidic, b- basic, c- in both media, d- In neutral media 20- Which of the following is required for digestion Specific enzyme, e- all of them. b- specific substrate, right temperature, d-specific pH a- C- Answer questions 1, 2, 6 and 7 in your lab manual (page 232).
differentiate into more specific cell types, including collencytes and lophocytes. Choanocytes Pinacocyte O Amoebocytes Next Previous e e Search the web and Windows
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