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Get college assignment help at uniessay writers 9. MPF activity was discovered when cytoplasm from a Xenopus M-phase cell was injected into Xenopus oocytes, inducing the oocytes to form a mitotic spindle. In a control experiment, Xenopus interphase cytoplasm was injected into oocytes and shown not to induce the formation of a mitotic spindle. Which of the following statements is not a legitimate conclusion from the control experiment? A) The piercing of the oocyte membrane by a needle is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation. B) An increased volume of cytoplasm is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation. C) Injection of extra RNA molecules is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation. D) Components of an interphase nucleus are insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation. 10. Levels of Cdk activity change during the cell cycle, in part, because A) the Cdks phosphorylate each other C) cyclin levels change during the cycle phase of the cell cycle B) the Cdks activate the cyclins D) Cdk degradation precedes entry into the next 11. The concentration of mitotic cyclin (M cyclin) A) rises markedly during M phase B) is activated by phosphorylation C) falls toward the end of M phase as a result of ubiquitylation and degradation D) is highest in G1 phase 12. At the end of DNA replication, the sister chromatids are held together by the A) kinetochores B) securins C) cohesins D) histones 13. Which of the following does not occur during M phase in animal cells? A) growth of the cell B) condensation of chromosomes C) breakdown of nuclear envelope D) attachment of chromosomes to microtubules 14. Condensins A) are degraded when cells enter M-phase B) assemble into complexes on the DNA when phosphorylated by M-Cdk C) are involved in holding sister chromatids together D) bind to DNA before DNA replication begins 15 Disassembly of the nuclear envelope A) causes the inner nuclear membrane to separate from the outer nuclear membrane B) results in the conversion of the nuclear envelope into protein-free membrane vesicles C) is triggered by the phosphorylation of integrins D) must occur for kinetochore microtubules to form in animal cells 16. Which of the following statements about kinetochores is true? A) Kinetochores assemble onto chromosomes during late prophase. B) Kinetochores contain DNA-binding proteins that recognize sequences at the telomere of the chromosome. C) Kinetochore proteins bind to the tubulin molecules at the minus end of microtubules. D) Kinetochores assemble on chromosomes that lack centromeres. 17. A cell with nuclear lamins cannot be phosphorylated in M phase will be unable to B) begin to assemble a mitotic spindle D) condense its chromosomes at prophase A) reassemble its nuclear envelope at telophase C) disassemble its nuclear lamina at prometaphase 2
Q2.18. The equilibrium theory of island blogeography has been used to make predictions about how island size and distance as well as species richness affect immigration rates, extinction rates, and turnover rates. Which of the following predictions does NOT follow from the theory of Island Biogeography? (Note: The phrase “all else being equal” applies to each option.) Immigration rates increase as an island’s distance to mainland decreases. O Extinction rates increase as the number of species on an island increases. O Extinction rates decrease as the size of an island increases. O Tumover rates decrease as the size of an island decreases. Q2.19. When we think of islands, we often think of them as land masses surrounded by water. Ecologists have suggested a much broader definition of an island. Which of the following would NOT be viewed as an island by an ecologist? O Mountain top habitats O Urban parks Caves O The Sahara desert Q2.20. Horses originated in North America and then migrated to Asia and Europe. As they migrated, they evolved over many generations into the horse species we see today. This is an example of which migration type? O Diffusion O Jump Dispersal O Secular Migration forried in hoats by Furopeansettlers (no land. Q2.21. Horses went extinct in North America and did not return until they were ferried in boats by European settlers (no land W mammal can swim on its own across an ocean). From a horse’s perspective, the ocean barrier is best described as what? O A corridor O A filter O A sweepstakes route Q2.22. In the figure below, islands A and B are the same size and distance from the mainland. One of them has some smaller islands between it and the mainland. Based on island biogeography, what difference would you expect to see in species richness between A and B, and why? Mainland Island A should have more species than Island B becauše Island B’s extinction rate is higher O Island A should have more species than Island B because Island A’s colonization rate is higher. Island B should have more species than Island A because Island A’s extinction rate is higher. O Island B should have more species than Island A because Island B’s colonization rate is higher. Submit 26/27
Conceptual Questions Cl. Why did Mendel’s work refute the blending theory of inheritance? C2. What is the difference between cross-fertilization versus self- fertilization? C3. Describe the difference between genotype and phenotype. Give three examples. Is it possible for two individuals to have the same phenotype but different genotypes? C4. With regard to genotypes, what is a true-breeding organism? C5. How can you determine whether homozygous for a dominant trait? organism is heterozygous an or
C6. In your own words, describe what Mendel’s law of segregation means. Do not use the word segregation in your answer. C7. Based on genes in pea plants that we have considered in this chap- ter, which statement(s) is not correct? A.The gene causing tall plants is an allele of the gene causing dwarf plants. B. The gene causing tall plants is an allele of the gene causing pur- ple flowers. C. The alleles causing tall plants and purple flowers are dominant. C8. In a cross between a heterozygous tall pea plant and a dwarf plant, predict the ratios of the offspring’s genotypes and phenotypes. C9. Do you know the genotype of an individual with a recessive trait and/or a dominant trait? Explain your answer. C10.A cross is made between a pea plant that has constricted pods (a recessive trait; smooth is dominant) and is heterozygous for seed color (yellow is dominant to green) and a plant that is heterozy- gous for both pod texture and seed color. Construct a Punnett square that depicts this cross. What are the predicted outcomes of genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring?
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10otoxins Of Gram-Negative. Bipolar Staining www.picswe.com Seratia Marcm bioprocessonline.com picswe.com istockphoto.com Bacilli Bacteria Under Microscope ww… www.picswe.com Baci under microscope gram negative bacick 59 0 bacteria under microscope sare DAdd to Visit Colections Related images View more 50 Send feeac 597480- Images may be subject to copyright. Leam More Get het 20 30 Enter 10 um robactenaceae-Microscopic Enterobacteriaceae-Microscop Enterobacter aerogenes (what my iday.c Pseudomonas aenuginosa bacteria slideplayer.com pinterest.com Enterobacterias ter com sdepa Enterobacteriaceae – Microscopic appe. SidePlayer 6 Gram negative rod, motle Aminorty of strains ane capulatied Add te Vist Share Callections Related images View more Gram negative rod, motile. A minority of strains are capsulated Ge te-Set e 960 720-Images may be subject to copyright Leam More omedical GIT Mcroscopic View of Salmonella reseachgale.net Shigela owo by ajone1345 on emai acpemare.com Microscopic View of Salmonella | Downl… ResearchGate Mcroscopic View of Salmonella Share D AEto Collections SVait Related images View more 10pm asoe53-nages may be subet to copygs Lea re Related searches % 7 4 3 2
If the human genome is three billion base pairs long, estimate the average number of SNPS in the human genomel
Systematic Reasoning: Disagreements, Claims, and Reasons In individual paragraphs explain what would be adequate�justification for the following assertions: 2. Studying the night before an exam produces better results than getting up early and studying just before the exam. 7. Buddy Holly was one of the originators of Rock and Roll. 9. People who live in warm climates are usually friendlier, more generous and hospitable than those in colder climates.
Precipitation is an important factor influencing the O distribution of populations distribution of biomes O biodiversity of ecosystems Next Previous Chp
The optimal environmental conditions that lead to maximum require a warm and wet climate. secondary productivity plant productivity net primary productivity Previo Next f e hp
Get college assignment help at uniessay writers Domroans ecesive D Find indee. arics for cach Sene Piatia 3:1 Fnia GB Green 9Yencw S Smecth: Slunkle ‘S S3x SE 3: 4 3 3/4 5 Lt y45 Ci TG3 =3/4y 3/4 x4 9lby Es s
Part I: Amino Acid properties in C. elegans Use the C. elegans coding sequences fasta file (in Materials) to find out the following information about the amino acid composition of proteins in the C. elegans coding sequences. Note. Use this table for other Amino Acid properties. Print the results to standard output (e. console) in the form of a sentence. 1. Which protein has the highest number of hydrophobic Amino Acid residues? 2. Which protein has the highest proportion of hydrophobic Amino Acid residues? 3. Which protein has the highest number of acidic amino acid residues? 4. Which protein has the highest proportion of acidic amino acid residues?
Extra Credit (5 pts) DUE June 7, 2019 MIDNIGHT Part A (2.5 pts) Petal coloration in foxgloves is determined by three genes. M codes for an enzyme that synthesizes anthocyanin, the purple pigment seen in these petals; m/m produces no pigment, resulting in the phenotype albino with yellow spots. D is an enhancer of anthocyanin, resulting in darker pigment; d/d does not enhance, giving light purple petals. At a third locus, w/w allows for pigment deposition in petals, but Wprevents pigment deposition except in the spots, so results in the white spotted phenotype. Consider the following two crosses: Cross Parents Progeny 1 Dark purple x white with yellowish spots /2 dark purple:V2light purple X : 2white with purple spots: 4 dark purple: 4 light purple 2 White with yellowish spots x light purple X A. In each case, give the genotypes of the parents and progeny with respect to the three genes. I MUST SEE YOUR WORK!!!!.don’t just give me the answer, but show me the explanation. В. Suppose you were to cross two individuals with the genotypes: Mm Dd ww x МM dd Ww. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring? In order to make sure your answer is clear, please provide the phenotype with the general genotype in parentheses e.g. 1 Purple, Tall (P-T-): 1 Purple, short (P-tt)
Can someone please help me in working this problem-solving simulation?!?! I’ve been working forever on it and I cannot find a way to make it work! Here’s the link to the simulation… http://corptrain.phoenix.edu/rm_dev/river.html
(10) 5. Consider five conditions of some enzyme(s) with the following Lineweaver-Burk equations. Km Vmax =4 A) y 1 x 0.25 B) y 0.25 x 0.25 Vmax =4 C) y 1 x 1 D) y 1 x 4 E) y 0.25 x 1 I km Km- 4 Vmax Vonax-125 Km.25 Km o.25 Vmax 4 m ma K Vmax Lm.25 CiDWhich set of conditions demonstrates the enzymé that is least able to form the ES complex easily? Which set of conditions demonstrates the enzyme with the highest Vmax? f Which set of conditions demonstrates the enzyme with the greatest specificity constant? ) Which et of conditions most likely represent the enzyme’s natural substrate? S yWhich pair of sets of conditions would represent an enzyme with and without a competitive inhibitor?t Km Vi Which pair of sets of conditions would represent an enzyme with and without a noncompetitive inhibitor? vii) Which pair of sets of conditions would represent an enzyme in the presence of an allosteric activator and in the presence of an allosteric inhibitor? viii) Which set of conditions demonstrates the enzyme with the lowest k:? ix) Which set of conditions shows an enzyme with equal values for Vmax and Ku? x) Which set of conditions shows an enzyme with a specific constant of 1?
What is meant by the term histone code? With regard to gene regu- lation, what is the proposed role of the histone code? What is a nucleosome-free region? Where are they typically found in a genome? How are nucleosome-free regions thought to be func- tionally important? Nucleosomes are thought to be displaced as RNA polymerase is transcribing a gene. What would be the potentially harmful conse- quences if nucleosomes were not put back into a gene after RNA polymerase had passed? that insulators difforent ways
One of the most important abiotic features in stratification. _biomes is ocean freshwater both ocean and freshwater Neln Previous e
EN. Adaptive Defenses or Immunity A Introduction L Immunity is 2 An immune response is based on 3. Amtigens are Substoncs o gsoNOR On iemane carry out immune responses B. Antigens Receptors on lymphocyte surfaces enable cells to recognize 1 C Lymphocyte Origins 1 T cells are derived from 2 B cells are derived from D. Lymphocyte Functions 1. The cellular immune response is 2. Cytokines are produces by Examples of cytokines are 3. 4. Functions of cytokines are 6 B cells differentiate into Plasma cells produce 7. S The humoral immune response is 9. A clone is Different varieties of T cells and B cells have a particular type of 10. on their cell membranes that
More than any other species, humans can alter carrying capacity O speciation of other organisms Ofecundity Net Previous e
A climax community is an ecosystem that has just had new species introduced to its community that will remain stable until a disturbance results in a secondary succession cycle composed of intermediate species in the middle of a secondary cycle Next Previous e hp
1. The local mediator nitric oxide stimulates the intracellular enzyme guanylyl cyclase by A) diffusing into cells and stimulating the cyclase directly C) activating a receptor tyrosine kinase B) activating a G-protein D) activating an intracellular protein kinase 2. Which of the following statements about molecular switches is false? A) Phosphatases remove the phosphate from GTP on GTP-binding proteins, turning them off. B) Protein kinases transfer the terminal phosphate from ATP onto a protein. C) Serine/threonine kinases are the most common types of protein kinase. D) A GTP-binding protein exchanges its bound GDP for GTP to become activated. 3. The following happens when a cell-surface receptor activates a G protein. A) The B subunit exchanges its bound GDP for GTP B) The GDP bound to the a subunit is phosphorylated to form bound GTP. C) The a subunit exchanges its bound GDP for GTP. D) It activates the a subunit and inactivates the By complex 4. The growth factor Superchick stimulates the proliferation of cultured chicken cells. The receptor that binds Superchick is a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), and many chicken tumor cell lines have mutations in the gene that encodes this receptor. Which of the following types of mutation would be expected to promote uncontrolled cell proliferation? A) a mutation that prevents dimerization of the receptor B) a mutation that destroys the kinase activity of the receptor C) a mutation that inactivates the protein tyrosine phosphatase that normally removes the phosphates from tyrosines on the activated receptor D) a mutation that prevents the binding of the normal extracellular signal to the receptor 5. A protein kinase can act as an integrating device in signaling if it A) phosphorylates more than one substrate B) catalyzes its own phosphorylation C) is activated by two or more proteins in different signaling pathways D) initiates a phosphorylation cascade involving two or more protein kinases 6. Which of the following statements is true? A) MAP kinase is important for phosphorylating MAP kinase kinase. B) PI 3-kinase phosphorylates a lipid in the plasma membrane. C) Ras becomes activated when an RTK phosphorylates its bound GDP to create GTP. D) STAT proteins phosphorylate JAK proteins, which then enter the nucleus and activate gene transcription. 7. What would be the most obvious outcome of repeated cell cycles consisting of S phase and M phase only? A) Cells would not be able to replicate their DNA. B) The mitotic spindle could not assemble. C) Cells would get larger and larger. D) The cells produced would get smaller and smaller. 8. Which of the following events does not usually occur during interphase? A) Cells grow in size. C) DNA is replicated. B) The nuclear envelope breaks down. D) The centrosomes are duplicated. 1
The post Question: 9. MPF Activity Was Discovered When Cytoplasm From A Xenopus M-phase Cell Was Injected Into Xenopus Oocytes, Inducing The Oocytes To Form A Mitotic Spindle. In A Control Experiment, Xenopus Interphase Cytoplasm Was Injected Into Oocytes And Shown Not To Induce The Formation Of A Mitotic Spindle. Which Of The Following Statements Is Not A Legitimate … appeared first on uniessay writers.
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